How often does he fold? (330BBs deep)
02-26-2015
, 07:05 PM
1/2 game. Villain is a tag fish, but also a winner because of his nittiness. Hero is a lag, and has definitely given villain too much action (big leak).
Hand early on went something like this - before I realized what a nit villain is: Villain raises to $15 after limper. Button calls. Hero calls from SB (~$500 effective with villain and button). Limper calls. Flop ($60) comes something like 23Tss. Checks to villain who bets $35. Button calls. I call. SB folds. Turn ($165) is 9o. I bet $100. Villain snaps pretty quickly. Button tank folds. River was a brick, maybe 2o. I contemplate a bet. Villain gives a speech and offers to show if I check. I know his overpair will beat me, and decide it's too risky to try to get him to fold. He shows KK and I muck. He says he was calling anything and thought I had jacks or queens.
After this, villain is playing with a VPIP of less than 10%.
Another hand went like this. Again, maybe $500 effective. I straddle UTG for $5 (don't bother telling me it's a leak). Villain limps (I figure his limping range is medium to small pocket pairs and AJ+, KQ, maybe JQ). BB completes. I raise to $20. Villain quickly raises to $70. BB folds. I thought about a 3bet but again villain gives a speech and offers to show. I decide a 3bet is somewhat marginal OOP not knowing too well what his limp reraising range is and take the info. He has 88, and I somewhat regret not 3betting as I thought his hand is what I would most likely see (we would've been flipping).
There are other hands where he checks back otr and shows hands in clear value betting spots because of scare cards, etc. E.g., AQ-AK on A-high boards when he should be bet/bet/betting but instead checks back.
On to hand in question:
We are about $660 effective (villain covers with about $900). Villain raises to $15. Hero calls on button. One of the blinds call.
Flop ($45) is 3
66
Checks to villain who bets $35. Hero calls, other folds.
Turn ($115) is 7 (Spades and straight both got there - I was playing enough hands where 45s+ could easily be in my range)
Villain checks. Hero bets $90. Villain insta-raises to $200.
Now there is $405 in the pot. If I put in the $110 call, I have $410 behind.
Hero thinks for a bit, and then villain says angrily, "You want to see another winner" (offering to show if I fold), and I can tell villain doesn't like the board and this is some stupid raise meant to see where he is. I decide villain has like TT-QQ here always.
If I shove, this will be the biggest pot of the night by far. The table as a whole has been playing pretty weak-passive and overall much tighter than most 1/2 games (but still kinda loose - it is 1/2), and other than raising a lot preflop and cbetting a bit hero hasn't done anything crazy. Two hands that I did raise postflop that were shown down were big/nutty hands.
Assuming villain always has TT-QQ (hero feels confident that villain does *not* have a flush), how often does villain fold when hero ships ($110 call + $410 behind)? How often does villain fold to $200 on top and hero leaving $220 behind?
Hand early on went something like this - before I realized what a nit villain is: Villain raises to $15 after limper. Button calls. Hero calls from SB (~$500 effective with villain and button). Limper calls. Flop ($60) comes something like 23Tss. Checks to villain who bets $35. Button calls. I call. SB folds. Turn ($165) is 9o. I bet $100. Villain snaps pretty quickly. Button tank folds. River was a brick, maybe 2o. I contemplate a bet. Villain gives a speech and offers to show if I check. I know his overpair will beat me, and decide it's too risky to try to get him to fold. He shows KK and I muck. He says he was calling anything and thought I had jacks or queens.
After this, villain is playing with a VPIP of less than 10%.
Another hand went like this. Again, maybe $500 effective. I straddle UTG for $5 (don't bother telling me it's a leak). Villain limps (I figure his limping range is medium to small pocket pairs and AJ+, KQ, maybe JQ). BB completes. I raise to $20. Villain quickly raises to $70. BB folds. I thought about a 3bet but again villain gives a speech and offers to show. I decide a 3bet is somewhat marginal OOP not knowing too well what his limp reraising range is and take the info. He has 88, and I somewhat regret not 3betting as I thought his hand is what I would most likely see (we would've been flipping).
There are other hands where he checks back otr and shows hands in clear value betting spots because of scare cards, etc. E.g., AQ-AK on A-high boards when he should be bet/bet/betting but instead checks back.
On to hand in question:
We are about $660 effective (villain covers with about $900). Villain raises to $15. Hero calls on button. One of the blinds call.
Flop ($45) is 3
66Checks to villain who bets $35. Hero calls, other folds.
Turn ($115) is 7
(Spades and straight both got there - I was playing enough hands where 45s+ could easily be in my range)Villain checks. Hero bets $90. Villain insta-raises to $200.
Now there is $405 in the pot. If I put in the $110 call, I have $410 behind.
Hero thinks for a bit, and then villain says angrily, "You want to see another winner" (offering to show if I fold), and I can tell villain doesn't like the board and this is some stupid raise meant to see where he is. I decide villain has like TT-QQ here always.
If I shove, this will be the biggest pot of the night by far. The table as a whole has been playing pretty weak-passive and overall much tighter than most 1/2 games (but still kinda loose - it is 1/2), and other than raising a lot preflop and cbetting a bit hero hasn't done anything crazy. Two hands that I did raise postflop that were shown down were big/nutty hands.
Assuming villain always has TT-QQ (hero feels confident that villain does *not* have a flush), how often does villain fold when hero ships ($110 call + $410 behind)? How often does villain fold to $200 on top and hero leaving $220 behind?
02-26-2015
, 07:15 PM
Quote:
1/2 game. Villain is a tag fish, but also a winner because of his nittiness. Hero is a lag, and has definitely given villain too much action (big leak).
Hand early on went something like this - before I realized what a nit villain is: Villain raises to $15 after limper. Button calls. Hero calls from SB (~$500 effective with villain and button). Limper calls. Flop ($60) comes something like 23Tss. Checks to villain who bets $35. Button calls. I call. SB folds. Turn ($165) is 9o. I bet $100. Villain snaps pretty quickly. Button tank folds. River was a brick, maybe 2o. I contemplate a bet. Villain gives a speech and offers to show if I check. I know his overpair will beat me, and decide it's too risky to try to get him to fold. He shows KK and I muck. He says he was calling anything and thought I had jacks or queens.
After this, villain is playing with a VPIP of less than 10%.
Another hand went like this. Again, maybe $500 effective. I straddle UTG for $5 (don't bother telling me it's a leak). Villain limps (I figure his limping range is medium to small pocket pairs and AJ+, KQ, maybe JQ). BB completes. I raise to $20. Villain quickly raises to $70. BB folds. I thought about a 3bet but again villain gives a speech and offers to show. I decide a 3bet is somewhat marginal OOP not knowing too well what his limp reraising range is and take the info. He has 88, and I somewhat regret not 3betting as I thought his hand is what I would most likely see (we would've been flipping).
There are other hands where he checks back otr and shows hands in clear value betting spots because of scare cards, etc. E.g., AQ-AK on A-high boards when he should be bet/bet/betting but instead checks back.
On to hand in question:
We are about $660 effective (villain covers with about $900). Villain raises to $15. Hero calls on button. One of the blinds call.
Flop ($45) is 366
Checks to villain who bets $35. Hero calls, other folds.
Turn ($115) is 7 (Spades and straight both got there - I was playing enough hands where 45s+ could easily be in my range)
Villain checks. Hero bets $90. Villain insta-raises to $200.
Now there is $405 in the pot. If I put in the $110 call, I have $410 behind.
Hero thinks for a bit, and then villain says angrily, "You want to see another winner" (offering to show if I fold), and I can tell villain doesn't like the board and this is some stupid raise meant to see where he is. I decide villain has like TT-QQ here always.
If I shove, this will be the biggest pot of the night by far. The table as a whole has been playing pretty weak-passive and overall much tighter than most 1/2 games (but still kinda loose - it is 1/2), and other than raising a lot preflop and cbetting a bit hero hasn't done anything crazy. Two hands that I did raise postflop that were shown down were big/nutty hands.
Assuming villain always has TT-QQ (hero feels confident that villain does *not* have a flush), how often does villain fold when hero ships ($110 call + $410 behind)? How often does villain fold to $200 on top and hero leaving $220 behind?
Hand early on went something like this - before I realized what a nit villain is: Villain raises to $15 after limper. Button calls. Hero calls from SB (~$500 effective with villain and button). Limper calls. Flop ($60) comes something like 23Tss. Checks to villain who bets $35. Button calls. I call. SB folds. Turn ($165) is 9o. I bet $100. Villain snaps pretty quickly. Button tank folds. River was a brick, maybe 2o. I contemplate a bet. Villain gives a speech and offers to show if I check. I know his overpair will beat me, and decide it's too risky to try to get him to fold. He shows KK and I muck. He says he was calling anything and thought I had jacks or queens.
After this, villain is playing with a VPIP of less than 10%.
Another hand went like this. Again, maybe $500 effective. I straddle UTG for $5 (don't bother telling me it's a leak). Villain limps (I figure his limping range is medium to small pocket pairs and AJ+, KQ, maybe JQ). BB completes. I raise to $20. Villain quickly raises to $70. BB folds. I thought about a 3bet but again villain gives a speech and offers to show. I decide a 3bet is somewhat marginal OOP not knowing too well what his limp reraising range is and take the info. He has 88, and I somewhat regret not 3betting as I thought his hand is what I would most likely see (we would've been flipping).
There are other hands where he checks back otr and shows hands in clear value betting spots because of scare cards, etc. E.g., AQ-AK on A-high boards when he should be bet/bet/betting but instead checks back.
On to hand in question:
We are about $660 effective (villain covers with about $900). Villain raises to $15. Hero calls on button. One of the blinds call.
Flop ($45) is 3
66Checks to villain who bets $35. Hero calls, other folds.
Turn ($115) is 7
(Spades and straight both got there - I was playing enough hands where 45s+ could easily be in my range)Villain checks. Hero bets $90. Villain insta-raises to $200.
Now there is $405 in the pot. If I put in the $110 call, I have $410 behind.
Hero thinks for a bit, and then villain says angrily, "You want to see another winner" (offering to show if I fold), and I can tell villain doesn't like the board and this is some stupid raise meant to see where he is. I decide villain has like TT-QQ here always.
If I shove, this will be the biggest pot of the night by far. The table as a whole has been playing pretty weak-passive and overall much tighter than most 1/2 games (but still kinda loose - it is 1/2), and other than raising a lot preflop and cbetting a bit hero hasn't done anything crazy. Two hands that I did raise postflop that were shown down were big/nutty hands.
Assuming villain always has TT-QQ (hero feels confident that villain does *not* have a flush), how often does villain fold when hero ships ($110 call + $410 behind)? How often does villain fold to $200 on top and hero leaving $220 behind?
As far as the hand, I think he doesn't respect your image and will hero call you maybe 75% of the time w QQ and 50%+ w TT.
02-26-2015
, 07:23 PM
I could maybe make an argument for playing this as a set-mining hand and just give up to a single flop bet, but I didn't. Turn bet was meh since I figured I was against an overpair fairly often, but meant for two reasons. First if he had AK/AQ with a spade, I wanted him to pay to see it. But I also wanted to see how he reacted. Villains with offsuit cards will often check them to see if they can draw. So a check/call/check is an overpair much more than AKo. I figured in case I was against an overpair, there are a lot of good cards (4flush, 4liner straight, and A/K, plus my two outs) I can bomb river with in case I get a solid read - don't think he was really thinking about my range so much as how scary the board looked. I was really torn between all of my options here - calling to bluff river, raising, and folding. I decided to fold. He showed JJ, no spades. He left shortly after. I'm still a little undecided about this hand, but figured everyone here would reassure me that villain calls too often, and my fold was right.