9 handed game with 1 maniac pushing the action. I am bb (entering 40% of pots with maniac) , maniac on button. Most players limp trapping maniac, who open raises between 30$-55$ 70% of hands.
pre-flop: utg calls, utg+1 calls ,cu calls, maniac calls, sb calls, hero min raises (As9s), calls around, maniac raises to 100$, hero calls, utg+1 reraises (3d3s) to 400$, maniac folds, hero calls. pot=$925
Flop: 7d7s10s hero check calls $600
turn:5d hero check calls all-in $1160
Here is the skrewy thinking behind the strange play of the hand, and if most of my points can be conceded, for my sake of argument, i do have a specific question. My raise pre was to scare out any traps, i call maniac for obv reasons, when utg+1 4bets, i put him on a range of hands, not strong enough to stand alone/ push the action, but strong enough to gamble with if maniac shoves. so small PP only. Getting all my chips in @ any point is a profitable play, but the question I have is post flop.
Is check calling flop to hopefully give free river >%25 of time gain more equity then the <5% fold equity, if i check ship, or ship?
imo i can max 99% of time if i connect & fold rvr 100% if i dont. The hardest to concede, but plz do, would be that utg+1 would pay me off if a paint spade hits, or he would barrel if i check on turn or rvr when he gets counterfeit.
thanks, i am a first time poster plz dont scare me off
if in the wrong place or formated wrong i would appreciate honest help