Quote:
Originally Posted by Lapidator
My posting ITT is entirely consistent. Nothing I have said is contradictory.
Preflop, 30% of the time (or less), V has something other then AA.
30% is not equal to 0%.
Also, I have not ruled out AA as played. V might now be getting trappy, or perhaps he's afraid of a naked 5? Who knows: Hero has 3 hands of history. Sure, at this point it seems highly unlikely that V still has any AA left. But ruling out hands to 0% is lol at LLSNL when dealing with complete unknowns.
Nope, it does not unfortunately. Cause when you are argueing that his limp/reraise range is packed with AA combos (70 percent), the premise is that you are argueing villain has an extremely nutted range overall here. A villain who have such a powerful range as you are assigning him have _zero_ "weak A" hands in it for the other 30 percent of combos, that is just common sense, common logic and basic ranging skills. He have hands like QQ and KK for the remaining 30 percent, not freaking raggy ace hands. IF he have some "weak A hands", he simply doesent have 70 percent AA at the same time in that range. A nutted limp/reraise range as you are argueing for doesent have any weak Ax. Zero,none.
Either you are arguing that he have a wide enough limp/reraise range that its consists of some weak Ax combos as well (wich in that case he also have loads of 1010,JJ and QQ so pre is a slam dunk easy jam for value), or you dont. You have argued for the latter option in this thread preflop, then youre suddenly (appearantly) changing your mind when youre commenting the river decision talking about that villain probably dont fold a weak A.
So yeah, its pretty obvious that youre posts is all over the place and lacks consistent logic like explained above.
Last edited by Petrucci; 07-22-2017 at 06:37 AM.