hypothetically lets say villian has KcKd
Hero has AsQs
Flop:Jc3s8s
villian bets 20 dollars into a 30 dollar pot

basically my question is how do you calculate the pot odds on this hand

thank you

(30+20) to 20 = 50:20 = 5:2 pot odds (2.5:1)


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

Hero needs 28.57% equity to justify a call.
Hero has 9 flush outs + 2 A outs. Totall: 11 outs.
Hero equity is 46.5%.
Call.

This is false unless there are no future bets

Of course.
Anyway, due to the villain hand, almost all your outs (beside the aces) will obtain a good sized pot (Implied odds).

A more accurate setup would be that the hero has AsQs, the board is Jc3s8s, and
villain bets 20 dollars into a 30 dollar pot. The pot odds are still 5-2.

Hero has, potentially, 9 spade outs, 3 Qs, 3 As, and also the possibility he is actually ahead. He could be against JdJc, which would eliminate the Js as an out, and the queens and aces also aren't outs. No matter what the action preflop, there is no way you could put villain on specifically KcKd.

I'm simply pointing out that I have yet to be in a situation where I was facing a bet and I knew my opponent's cards (the game would be so much easier). So you can't figure your equity against a specific holding, when there are so many possible holdings.

KI

Didn't you use an equity calculator get the showdown equity and is there not 3 remaining aces, not 2? For the stated problem, a call is quite reasonable, but putting villain on a specific hand is not. However, only a villain range of JJ,88,33 would make the call a marginal play.

Edit: Mostly repeats what vbaces said