Is it possible to not have enough value combos to fill in with? - Page 2 - Poker Theory

Could you please help to further elaborate on what flops would usually require a higher defending % and vice versa?

Thanks in advance for taking the time to answer my questions guys

Looking Forward

Quote

06-21-2017 , 12:56 AM

#27

smokey93

journeyman

Join Date: Jun 2014 Posts: 279

Quote:

Originally Posted by yasuo

no. if opponent's range is only the absolute nuts, then we will not have any value bets

Please elaborate

My current conclusion is, if there would be no value bet combos in our range, the only option is to fold.

As well, if we were to assume our opponent's range only has the absolute nuts, that would require some sought of read and understanding of V's tendencies as well as V's actions on previous streets.

So, can I safely conclude we would have to unbalance our range here?
(Since there are no value bet combos in our range)

Please advise,

Looking forward

PS : Assuming we have no HUD available

Quote

06-21-2017 , 12:58 AM

#28

smokey93

journeyman

Join Date: Jun 2014 Posts: 279

Quote:

Originally Posted by RustyBrooks

If your opponent's range is only nuts, how many bluffs should you have? Is it possible to "not have enough value bets" to balance this number?

This is a good question.

Quote

06-22-2017 , 12:37 PM

#29

Shamway99

veteran

Join Date: Oct 2012 Posts: 3,348

Quote:

Originally Posted by smokey93

How should the % between these two moves be assigned as a defense move frequency?

Is there any kind of formula or method to figure that out?

Could you please help to further elaborate on what flops would usually require a higher defending % and vice versa?

Thanks in advance for taking the time to answer my questions guys

Looking Forward

There is not a formula. Ofc sometimes you raise 0 sometimes 25%+ depends on flop. In general you can say 10% raise flop overall is on the higher side but not insane high.

The better flop hits your pre range the higher def. Often midhigh connected flop are best. And often such flops are the ones you raise more often.

Quote

06-22-2017 , 03:10 PM

#30

gr26

journeyman

Join Date: Jan 2016 Posts: 222

Quote:

Originally Posted by ZKesic

70% seems a bit high to me

nevertheless if somebody does it (or even 100%), can we say that he doesn't have enough value hands?

Quote

06-22-2017 , 04:46 PM

#31

madlex

Carpal \'Tunnel

Join Date: Jan 2009 Posts: 17,428

Quote:

Originally Posted by ZKesic

It's impossible in poker to not have enough value hands. You're balancing your value range with bluffs, not the other way around.

But it's possible to have 0 value hands. That makes your bluffing range very narrow..

Quote

06-23-2017 , 02:02 PM

#32

smokey93

journeyman

Join Date: Jun 2014 Posts: 279

Quote:

Originally Posted by Shamway99

Ofc sometimes you raise 0 sometimes 25%+ depends on flop.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Shamway99

The better flop hits your pre range the higher def.

Besides this "rule of thumb", are there other reasons that we should adjust our raising frequency in either direction?

One of it I could think of is when V is a calling station and wouldn't fold their bottom pair for their life.

But in terms of trying to play more GTO like, are there any other reasons to adjust?

And as well, how we could better adjust it?

Quote:

Originally Posted by Shamway99

In general you can say 10% raise flop overall is on the higher side but not insane high.

Is the 10% measured using the entire of defending range only or our entire continuation range(betting and defending)?

As well, how does we come to the 10%?

Quote:

Originally Posted by Shamway99

Often midhigh connected flop are best. And often such flops are the ones you raise more often.

I assume midhigh connected flops would be hands such as middle pair, or top pair no kicker, is that correct?

Please advise

Thank you ^^