thanks alot for the answers. what would be the probablity of someone recieving 2 cards as same suit as mine in a full ring game? the second question is what is the probablity of then having a higher than my card. if we are all TAGs

Given you have suited cards, with 8 opponents, there is about a 32% chance, at least one has two cards of the same suit as yours.

I assume your second question is asking about the same situation but an opponent having a higher ranked card. Of course that would depend on the your high card. For you having a king it is about 6.6%. If you have suited 3 2, then the probability of at least one of eight opponents having same suit higher rank is 32%, as you might guess from my first answer.

If your high rank is 8, say, the probability you will be outranked under the suitedness constraint is 27%.

These results were obtained by simulating one million hands. Tags, lags, maniacs, nits - makes no difference. These results depend only on the math. If you asked what is the probability of a player having a certain type hand after calling an all-in bet, for example, then the math part is only one factor in estimating someone's holding.

Just played a 3 hr 10 handed session in Reno. Every time there was monotone flop someone showed down the nut flush. (5/5) I was amazed. I really don't understand the math but since no one folds a suited ace at low limits perhaps it's even higher chance in 1-3