I am learning poker math. But run into an issue that I don't understand
I want to calculate the probability for drawing a set or higher with a pocket pair (let's say pocket kings - K
K
) on the flop.
I can calculate this using two methods:
Method 1: calculate the probability of not drawing a set or higher
I know there are two Kings left in the pack: K
and K
for the first card there are 50 unseen cards, of which 48 won't give me a set
for the second card there are 49 unseen cards, of which 47 won't give me a set (or higher)
for the third flop card there are 48 unseen cards, of which 46 won't give me a set (or higher)
so calculating this probability = 48/50 * 47/49 * 46/48 = 88.24% of not drawing a set (or higher). I multiply probabilities for each of the three cards here, cause I want the probability of the set (or higher) not being completed by any of the three cards (not the 1st, not the 2nd nor the 3rd card).
Inversing this 1-88.24% results in probability of drawing a set or higher of 11.76%
Method 2: calculate the probability of drawing a set or higher
I know there are two Kings left in the pack: K
and K
for the first card there are 50 unseen cards, of which 2 can give me a set
for the second card there are 49 unseen cards, of which 2 can give me a set (or higher)
for the third flop card there are 48 unseen cards, of which 2 can give me a set (or higher)
So calculating this probability = 2/50 + 2/49 + 2/48 = 12.25%
I am adding the probabilities, since each of the individual cards of the flop can bring me the set.
My questions- What is wrong in my assumptions cause the two are not equal?
- What is the correct method and why?
- Am I correct in my reasoning for multiplying in method 1 and adding in method 2?
- Any other comments?
Thanks,
Geoffrey
student of the math of poker