Quote:
Originally Posted by Love_the_game
Say you are playing a 6 max holdem game and you have a flush draw on the flop. Say you have 10 J diamond and your opponent has 2 black AA. Flop is 2d 7d kh. the calculation says you have 9 diamonds left to hit (13 diamonds - 2 diamonds your holding - 2 diamonds on the flop). Now wouldnt a more conservative and accurate estimate be that you have 7 diamonds left to hit? If you are playing with 5 other players (10 cards) and 1 out of 4 cards is a diamond, that means that a conservative estimate would be that there were atleast 2 diamonds in the other players hands. So instead of 9 diamonds left, there would more likely be 7 left.
thoughts?
This topic is covered in the sticky. Basically the fact that there are non-diamond cards also mucked/dealt means that on average the ratio of diamonds to non diamonds is equivalent to assuming no other cards have been dealt from the deck.