I was reviewing my session and came upon a hand which after analyzing with Icmizier (chip EV) kinda confused me, so here i am.
The format in which this hand was played is a 45man 1.50, but i would like to hear opinions as a general approach to this spot in maybe higher buy ins or higher MTT SNGs.
The actual hand i had is quite irrelevant as i am looking for a general range solution/explanation in this spot and not one for my actual hand. (since Icmizer says it's an any 2 spot)
Hero is in SB with 19bbs (150/300).Villain is in CO with 24bbs and is a LAG random with 37/24 with 33% 3bet, he min opens, btn folds and it's my turn.
Now, when i reviewed this hand in ICMizer i gave villian a 30% open range (he might be even wider than that but it seemed accurate) and i gave him a 9% call vs resteal shove range . With these numbers Icmizier's chip EV evaluation says that i should be shoving any 2.
I really don't know if i should be shoving any 2 with 19bbs here, or is that just the perfect stack which leads Icmizier into calculating that it is an any 2 spot?
I guess i should be pretty wide restealing here but should i really be any 2 wide? I know the answer strongly depends on what i think of villains call vs resteal range and on his opening range, which is obviously very wide. How do you guys approach these kinds of spots, what would you do versus a TAG reg here?
Any opinions would be appreciated.
P.S i double checked and i am very sure i put all of the numbers correctly into the calculator. (yes, this is how much i am confused)
Cheers