Villain 3 bet HUGE (5x my opens) and doing so at around 40-50% so I adjusted by reducing my open sizing to a min raise but found that still was putting me in a lot of uncomfortable spots. So i thought about going one of two ways, either I would open a limping range and balance as needed then open raise just my strongest hands because he was so rarely folding and so often raising. OR I would continue open raising with a MR and just flat a bit wider, be willing to 4 bet and get it in a bit lighter, and open a light 4 bet range that would 4 bet and fold. Which seems best?
He was attacking my limps with a 4x raise (making it 80c total vs my 20c open limps) very dependably, something like 90% of the time.
I decided to open fold the bottom of my "would usually open the button" range like 43s and 64o, J5, Q4o, etc and I was limp calling all my decent flopping hands like suited gappers, JT, Q9s, Kxs, A2s-A9s, A2o-ATo, and my non premium pairs and I was open raising my strongest hands like AJ+, KJ+, QJs+, and 88+ and was just going with most of those hands vs a huge 3 bet (i was stacking KQ+, AJ+, 99+ and got 99 all in against his 3 bet and 5 bet shoved 55). I was thinking (and this is super controversial Im sure) that I would want to have a couple of hands that raised and folded to the 3 bet but not many so I used QJs and KJ, and sometimes KT sometimes A9.
I feel like I was able to beat him up post flop pretty easily. He never c-bet once and shut down so I stopped calling c-bets with hands that would have to fold to turn bet. He was checking back his air as PFR so I lead 100% of my air on the turn when he checked back flop, i used a lighter and smaller value injected check raise game to combat his linear and weak c-betting. I was checking bottom pairs and second pairs to induce and bluff catch effectively, etc, etc, etc.. i had a pretty simple time of things post flop. Floated a couple flops to raise turns because of his super high dub % and so on.
My main confusion was how to respond to his super high 3 bet % and his huge sizing.
Remember, he had a big stack but i was playing 100bb initially. And he was 3 betting 5x my open size about 45% (maybe more). He was only folding to my opens like 10% of the time, flatting a few hands and doing a ton of 3 betting.
So against a player like this who 3 bets often and huge and who will reliably iso to 4x against open limps does it make sense (at least until it seems like he is adjusting) to;
Open fold the bottom of your usual open raising range?
Open limp the hands that you'd like to see a flop in position with a pretty high SPR like J7s, 87o, 65s, K8s, KTo, QTo, Q7s, 22-77?
Open raise hands that will either be OK calling a large 3 bet but mostly open raising hands that are happy to get it in pre-flop?
I was only open raising 88+,ATs, AJ+, KJ+ and I was calling the 3 bet with 88, ATs, KJs, KJo, and I was 4 betting 99+, AJ+, KQ+ and stacking off with my entire 4 bet range.
What do we think about these adjustments to Mr "3 bet to 5x open size at 45+% frequency, never folding to a 4 bet, sometimes flatting OOP vs 4 bet with a lot of money in, often 5 bet jamming, iso raising vs all open limps"???
open limp some good equity floppers?
open fold weaker hands (tighten up a bit overall)?
open raise only hands that are strong enough to at least call a big raise in position?
only 4 bet hands I will take to the felt?
be willing to open, four bet, get it in with 99+, KQ, AJ+??
does this sound OK?
If not what could I have done differently/better?