It seems that to justify your claim, you'd also have to reject that Jesus has access to the Father. You'd also have to reject that Jesus is God.
ESV Notes:
Matt. 24:36 In response to the disciples asking, “when will these things be?” (
v. 3), Jesus says
no one knows, not even … the Son, but the Father only. In his incarnate life, Jesus learned things as other human beings learn them (cf.
Luke 2:52;
Heb. 5:8). On the other hand, Jesus was also fully God, and, as God, he had infinite knowledge (cf.
John 2:25; 16:30; 21:17). Here he is apparently speaking in terms of his human nature. This is similar to other statements about Jesus which could be true of his human nature only, and not of his divine nature (he grew and became strong,
Luke 2:40; increased in stature,
Luke 2:52; was about 30 years old,
Luke 3:23; was weary,
John 4:6; was thirsty,
John 19:28; was hungry,
Matt. 4:2; was crucified,
1 Cor. 2:8). Taking account of these verses, together with many verses that affirm Christ’s deity, the Council of Chalcedon in a.d. 451 affirmed that Christ was “perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man.” Yet it also affirmed that Jesus was “one Person and one Subsistence.” With regard to the properties of his human nature and his divine nature, the Chalcedonian Creed affirmed that Christ was to be “acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved.” That meant the properties of deity and the properties of humanity were both preserved. How Jesus could have limited knowledge and yet know all things is difficult, and much remains a mystery, for nobody else has ever been both God and man. One possibility is that Jesus regularly lived on the basis of his human knowledge but could at any time call to mind anything from his infinite knowledge.