The Catholic formulation of inerrancy (from
wikipedia)
Quote:
"Since everything asserted by the inspired authors or sacred writers must be held to be asserted by the Holy Spirit, it follows that the books of Scripture must be acknowledged as teaching solidly, faithfully and without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings for the sake of salvation.
Since God speaks in Sacred Scripture through men in human fashion, the interpreter of Sacred Scripture, in order to see clearly what God wanted to communicate to us, should carefully investigate what meaning the sacred writers really intended, and what God wanted to manifest by means of their words."
It seems to leave at least a little wiggle room.
Here's how
catholic.com addresses the question:
Quote:
Although inerrancy isn’t limited to religious truths which pertain to salvation but may include non-religious assertions by the biblical authors, this doesn’t mean Scripture is an inspired textbook of science or history. Inerrancy extends to what the biblical writers intend to teach, not necessarily to what they assume or presuppose or what isn’t integral to what they assert. In order to distinguish these things, scholars must examine the kind of writing or literary genre the biblical writers employ.
It seems to me that more conservative Catholics might be loathe to sum all that up as "divinely inspired but also full of errors" but their formulation leaves a bit of room for it at least.
Within Eastern Orthodoxy, you see a similar kind of loathing to introduce the word "error", but it's similar in that
- There is no doctrine of
sola scriptura, the church is the authority, not the text. This is sometimes justified in terms of the Church existing prior to the written books of the Bible, that the Bible is the written expression of the living faith of the Church
- there is a nuanced take on what the Bible is authoritative about, rather than saying that it's inerrant in every conceivable fashion. For example in
this interview on Ancient Faith radio:
Quote:
First of all, the early Church always understood the book, the Bible, to be inerrant. The Fathers of the Church speak about it as inerrant, so it definitely [is] the understanding of the Church, because it’s inspired. The question is: What do you consider to be an error? This really is the question, because if you’re trying to compare the Bible and measure it against science, then that’s a problem. Not that the Bible has errors, but [we must consider] what was the purpose of the Bible?
...we have to remember that the author is writing as a human being of his time, expressing the things according to the language of his own time and place and his culture. That doesn’t mean that it’s in error, because we discover that the world is millions of years old, not 5,000 years old. That doesn’t mean he is in error. The question is: What is he trying to teach us?
I think they could probably lady up a bit and admit some of these things are in fact "errors", they just think it's beside the point
Even among Protestants, in the more liberal churches I don't think criticism of biblical inerrantism as a doctrine, or at least criticisms of more extreme forms of the doctrine, are really completely fringe. Google isn't being very cooperative in terms of finding definitive statements, but I find articles discussing "mainline protestant" opposition to the doctrine of inerrancy.
It does seem to be the case that the
official doctrinal statements of a lot of even those churches dance around the issue in the same way the orthodox guy did, so there is that. It's definitely a defensive posture. I do think in any case that you are wrong in thinking the reaction of an average southern evangelical protestant is representative of Christianity to the point where opposition amounts to an "extreme fringe"