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Originally Posted by Mightyboosh
So the people he killed with the Flood were accepted into the afterlife? I'm curious about how you could know that, or whether you can support it with some kind of argument for how people who were too wicked and flawed to be allowed to live, were then accepted into heaven. If he was capable of intervening, removing their free will and killing them all and then forgiving them, why not just change them in some way where they still get to live?
You never seem to understand my point. I did not say that I have any knowledge of the fate of the victims of the Flood. (Full disclosure - I am not a Biblical literalist so the Flood is not necessarily real for me, but that is not important since people have drowned from time to time.)
What I am saying is that not having that perspective makes speculation about the good or evil of God's allowing a drowning to occur invalid. Not correct or incorrect, simply devoid of content.
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Are you suggesting that all the people that God killed in the flood were better off dead?
See above.
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I'm not trying to speculate from the position of God, I'm wondering why he can't be said to have sinned when he's done things that would be considered sinful otherwise.
When you try to say that He has sinned, you are speculating on the perspective of God. That is the entire point.
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I think that claiming 'he's god and we can't know what he knows so we assume it was done for good reasons' is just another example of special pleading. I could insist that in fact he did it because he's deeply flawed, psychotic and cruelly vengeful and that assertion has as much weight as yours.
The first bold statement is not a "special pleading". It is a statement of fact. Assuming a God, we cannot know what He knows. That is part of the logical structure that we are considering. The assumption that it was done for the good is just that, an assumption. Or in the case of religion, a statement of belief.
I have presented arguments before about why the assumption of good is defensible, but I have never argued that it is incontrovertible.
Concerning the second bold, neither statement has "weight" in the sense that we can establish it based on our observations. That is the whole point of the first bold statement. So strictly speaking your second statement is correct. The problem is that it does nothing to advance your conclusion that the Flood (or any other mishap) helps us to draw conclusions about the existence of God.