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How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? How is God immune to the Infinite Regression?

05-13-2013 , 03:30 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mightyboosh
So, Chapter Three 'Arguments for God's existence', page 77 - Thomas Aquinas' 'Proofs'. Dawkins argues that 'The unmoved mover', the 'Uncaused Cause' and the 'Cosmological argument' all rely on an infinite regress that is terminated by God and he says 'They make the entirely unwarranted assumption that God himself is immune to the regress'..

Dawkins doesn't give the Theist defence against this (not in a way that's obvious to me anyway), so I decided to ask here.
The simple defense is that Dawkins's accusation is false and he misrepresents the argument. Nowhere in Aquinas's proofs does he assume God is immune to the regress.

The assumption made is that "an infinite regress of movers is impossible".

"God is unmovable" falls out of the argument later and is a result of the argument's conclusion, not an assumption.

again for emphasis, "God is uncaused" is NOT an assumption. It's part of the conclusion.

The 2 sentences may look and sound similar but they are significantly different. specifically, consider the following 2 statements A-"There exists an uncaused cause" and B-"there exists an infinite chain of caused causes". Aquinas assumes ~B and then goes on to prove ~B->A. However, nothing is stated in the argument about A, in the case of B being true. So, if Aquinas is wrong and B is true, then A could be either true or false. Dawkins statement that Aquinas assumes A is true is just a flat out lie.

So, how do they assume god immune to the infinite regression? They don't. Dawkins claim that theists do is a false claim based on a misrepresentation of a different claim, that an infinite regress is impossible.

Last edited by RollWave; 05-13-2013 at 03:43 PM.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-13-2013 , 03:35 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by dereds
Isn't it possible to pose it

Assume A
A->B
B

Like you can't really assume the premise and the conclusion?
Assuming the process doesn't assume both premise and conclusion.

example:
Assume A->B
Given: ~A
conclusion: we learn nothing about B

--

but even if you want to rewrite it, my question still remains

Assume A
Given A->B
Conclusion B

"is B necessary?". I still don't understand what it means for a conclusion to be necessary. Unless he's just asking whether the conclusion is necessarily true, in which case that just depends on whether or not you accept the assumptions and givens of the argument.
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05-13-2013 , 03:45 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by RollWave
The simple defense is that Dawkins's accusation is false and he misrepresents the argument. Nowhere in Aquinas's proofs does he assume God is immune to the regress.

The assumption made is that "an infinite regress of movers is impossible".

"God is unmovable" falls out of the argument later and is a result of the argument's conclusion, not an assumption.

again for emphasis, "God is uncaused" is NOT an assumption. It's part of the conclusion.

The 2 sentences may look and sound similar but they are significantly different. specifically, consider the following 2 statements A-"There exists an uncaused cause" and B-"there exists an infinite chain of caused causes". Aquinas assumes ~B and then goes on to prove ~B->A. However, nothing is stated in the argument about A, in the case of B being true. So, if Aquinas is wrong and B is true, then A could be either true or false. This is why Aquinas is not implementing circular reasoning or begging the question. Assuming A to be true does not give us information about the truth of B.

So, how do they assume god immune to the infinite regression? They don't. Dawkins claim that theists do is a false claim based on a misrepresentation of a different claim, that an infinite regress is impossible.
Well that would seem to be the general consensus although some of the detail is still escaping me.
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05-13-2013 , 03:45 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by RollWave
I still don't understand what it means for a conclusion to be necessary. Unless he's just asking whether the conclusion is necessarily true, in which case that just depends on whether or not you accept the assumptions and givens of the argument.
Yeah something like that. Wouldn't the assumption be that there needs to be a first cause?

I suppose the question should be why do some find it necessary to end the regression of cause and effect?
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05-13-2013 , 03:46 PM
right that makes sense and while I think you're right that's how the necessary read to me.

Like I think the problem has been, and this isn't intended as a criticism of MB, that it's not really been clear whether the problem is with the premise(s) or with the conclusion and misunderstandings have occurred while arguments concerning both have been confused.
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05-13-2013 , 03:59 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by nek777
Yeah something like that. Wouldn't the assumption be that there needs to be a first cause?

I suppose the question should be why do some find it necessary to end the regression of cause and effect?
No, "There needs to be a first cause" is not an assumption. its the conclusion when a separate assumption is made. Below might clear up the suble differences:

A-"There exists an uncaused cause"
B-"There exists an infinite chain of caused causes"

Cosmological argument shows ~B->A. It does not assume A.

It's not a circular argument because its still logically possible for them both to be true. ie, even if Aquinas's assumption that 'B is false' is wrong, his conclusion of A being true could still be correct. you could have BOTH an infinite chain of caused causes AND an uncaused cause.

This is significant specifically because it doesn't assume A to be true. It shows that if B can be shown to be false (and many people both theist and atheist think B is false), then A is necessarily true. It shows that you can prove A with no knowledge of A via a completely separate path, ie disproving B.

Last edited by RollWave; 05-13-2013 at 04:12 PM.
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05-13-2013 , 04:13 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by RollWave
This is significant specifically because it doesn't assume A to be true. It shows that if B can be shown to be false (and many people both theist and atheist think B is false), then A is necessarily true. It shows that you can prove A with no knowledge of A via a completely separate path, ie disproving B.
Ok, I hope this isn't threadjacking.... But, how does one get to ~B.
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05-13-2013 , 04:24 PM
Isn't it essentially just an If statement. If ~B then A

so

if there isn't an infinite chain of caused causes then there is an uncaused cause

it doesn't prove ~B
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-13-2013 , 04:47 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by dereds
Isn't it essentially just an If statement. If ~B then A

so

if there isn't an infinite chain of caused causes then there is an uncaused cause

it doesn't prove ~B
True, but someone would have to make some argument for ~B. The assumption has to be defended in some way.

That is what I think Roll was getting at, you don't have to prove A, you just need to show ~B, then you can say A logical follows.

How is ~B arrived at?
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05-13-2013 , 05:00 PM
Aquinas doesn't it's the premise of his argument. He assumes that there has to be an uncaused cause and a first mover and goes from there.

His arguments are obviously more subtle but you get the drift
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05-13-2013 , 05:08 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by dereds
it doesn't prove ~B
Correct, ~B is assumed in the cosmological argument. it has to be supported separately.

Quote:
Originally Posted by nek777
Ok, I hope this isn't threadjacking.... But, how does one get to ~B.
that's the tricky part. The assumption of ~B is unsupported (or at least unproven, there are some intuitive reasons to think it may be false). Even if ~B is correct, it may be impossible to prove.

but the reason many people (both atheist and theist) think B is false is something along the lines of 'if B is true, that would mean that a set of things as a whole would have a characteristic that none of its members possesses'. ie, the infinite chain of caused causes would itself have to be uncaused.

I think people try to do proof by contradiction, something along the lines of there are '2 kinds of sets those whose characteristics are drawn from its members and those who can have characteristics that none of its members possess' - and then continue to show that causation is a property that fits in the first type of set, where the set can only draw from its members. So, since the chain must be caused, that's a contradiction and the infinite chain of caused causes can't exist.

I definitely don't think i've properly represented that argument so don't both attacking it, i know its incomplete and horrible. but in the end, even when stated better - its not proof of ~B. There is no proof of ~B. Its only something that you read and think, ok yea, B is probably false.

But its important to keep in mind, thinking B is false has essentially no implications on religion. Even if you acknowledge that B is probably false, and by argument, A is then probably true, you don't have to call the first cause God. You can agree with the cosmological argument and then suggest that the first cause is just unknown laws of physics or mother nature or whatever - which is what many nonreligious theists think of as god anyway.
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05-13-2013 , 05:16 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by dereds
Aquinas doesn't it's the premise of his argument. He assumes that there has to be an uncaused cause and a first mover and goes from there.
you're kinda backwards / still not differentiating correctly, he assumes 'there can't be an infinite chain of uncaused causes' and goes from there. Where he ends up is the uncaused cause as the necessary result if the previous assumptions are true.

The uncaused cause/first mover is the end, not the beginning.
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05-13-2013 , 05:30 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mightyboosh
I might as well now. Originally I wanted to keep the focus on the question and avoid any of the inevitable digressions and arguments concerning why the source may or may not be credible etc etc. I'm actually surprised that no one recognised it.

Armed with a somewhat improved knowledge of logic and the common arguments used in religious philosophy (somewhat improved when compared to how terribly little I knew before I started posting here...), I'm rereading the God Delusion. I don't think I finished the first chapter last time but this time I'm more familiar with a lot of the arguments, it's very interesting.

So, Chapter Three 'Arguments for God's existence', page 77 - Thomas Aquinas' 'Proofs'. Dawkins argues that 'The unmoved mover', the 'Uncaused Cause' and the 'Cosmological argument' all rely on an infinite regress that is terminated by God and he says 'They make the entirely unwarranted assumption that God himself is immune to the regress'..

Dawkins doesn't give the Theist defence against this (not in a way that's obvious to me anyway), so I decided to ask here.
Dawkins's book is fine as an introduction to the topic of the arguments for God's existence, but I would be wary of using it beyond that. Dawkins is not very knowledgeable about the literature on these arguments and so sometimes deals with them in a facile manner (his treatment of Pascal's Wager and the Ontological Argument are particularly bad). If you feel you have a better grounding in logic and religious philosophy now than when you first read The God Delusion, I would recommend instead that you branch out and read something oriented at a more narrowly focused audience than Dawkins--and probably you should start with something written by a theist.

For instance, if you want to read a pop book on the theistic side about the arguments for God's existence, you could read William Lane Craig's A Reasonable Faith. If you want something more serious, you could read Plantinga's Warranted Christian Belief or Richard Swinburne's The Existence of God.
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05-13-2013 , 05:41 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by duffee
I think it may depend on how one interprets these sorts of intensional propositions.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_dicto
The literal translation of the phrase "de dicto" is "of (the) word", whereas de re translates to "of (the) thing".

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/pr...orts/dere.html
[snip]Suppose that [5] Sally believes that Bill is happy. Does it thereby follow that Bill himself has a property — namely, the property of being believed by Sally to be happy? Neo-Russellians say "yes," for reasons discussed above: Namely, Sally's believing that Bill is happy involves Sally's standing in the belief relation to a singular proposition that involves Bill himself as a direct constituent. Those that reject neo-Russellianism, however, answer "no." This is because Sally's belief, which is truly reported by (5), does not involve Bill himself but rather some mode of presentation of Bill. Bill himself is at best indirectly implicated in the truth of (5), by being determined by the mode of presentation in question.

Oy. No.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-13-2013 , 06:16 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by RollWave
you're kinda backwards / still not differentiating correctly, he assumes 'there can't be an infinite chain of uncaused causes' and goes from there. Where he ends up is the uncaused cause as the necessary result if the previous assumptions are true.

The uncaused cause/first mover is the end, not the beginning.
Yeah you're right thanks for clarifying he starts from the assumption ~B
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05-13-2013 , 07:59 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Original Position
Oy. No.
Take theists, who when confronted with the problem of evil abandon their belief. I don’t think most of them would agree that a being named God still exists, just that they no longer believe he is good. I think most of them will conclude the word doesn’t refer.

So when you say…
Quote:
Originally Posted by Original Position
I think this kind of move is intellectual flim-flam. Of course, in a logical sense you can define "god" however you want. But defining "god" to mean something doesn't mean anything about the nature of the actual being(s) god, any more than the meaning of "atom" means that it can't be split. We use words like "god" to refer to beings. Those words can still refer even if their meaning ends up being wrong.
… I don’t think that interpretation would apply for most theists. Of course, there are exceptions like those who might revert to deism, but in the main, “God exists iff God is good,” holds true for most theists.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-13-2013 , 08:27 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by duffee
Take theists, who when confronted with the problem of evil abandon their belief. I don’t think most of them would agree that a being named God still exists, just that they no longer believe he is good. I think most of them will conclude the word doesn’t refer.

So when you say…

… I don’t think that interpretation would apply for most theists. Of course, there are exceptions like those who might revert to deism, but in the main, “God exists iff God is good,” holds true for most theists.
If you want to support your view with an empirical claim (the bolded), you have to actually support that claim. Simply saying "I think it is this way" doesn't do anything to convince me.
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05-14-2013 , 02:31 AM
Why is it not possible that the God who created the universe was created in turn by something else?

How would you know if it(god) was or was not? Do you think you know everything god knows? I am always told i dont.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 03:10 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mightyboosh

I think I'm starting to understand why this is such a contentious issue. When I started the thread I simply wanted to hear an argument for the termination being God. what I got was objections to the idea that there's a regression at all. I hadn't thought past getting the argument, I just wanted to catch up with it.

I think I see now that should Theists be unable to show that any regression terminates with God for a logical and supportable reason (or reasons) it means that the termination is as likely to be anything else as it is to be God. That has significant negative implications for monotheistic religions.

Really, it's an impasse. I can't accept 'god has no beginning' and 'god is outside time and above the laws of nature' because they seem entirely arbitrary and Theists don't seem to have anything else to offer up as justifying reasons.
This sums it up for me, too.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Aaron W.
Your stubbornness on trying to frame this conversation in this way shows a lack of willingness to learn anything new. You will remain ignorant until such a time as you change your intellectual approach to the conversation.
I don't think this is fair.

Theists are basically arguing that everything in the universe must have a cause, except for God - who is the Uncaused Cause. (RollWave - I don't think I am putting words in their mouths with this claim - do you agree or disagree?)

Well, they're more than welcome to make that argument, but there is literally nothing to support this claim except faith. It's a guess and nothing more.

My guess that the universe was created by a Giant Golden Rabbit is no less ridiculous or likely.

Whether or not this Bunny is the First Cause or not, I do not know.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 03:27 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by nek777
Ok, I hope this isn't threadjacking.... But, how does one get to ~B.
No, go for it.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 10:04 AM
For all of those saying that I did not begin to exist, in what sense did "I"/"jibninjas" exist in 1867? In what sense could you say that the being that we call Jibninjas always existed?
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 10:16 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jibninjas
For all of those saying that I did not begin to exist, in what sense did "I"/"jibninjas" exist in 1867?

"You" dont exist at all, and never have. The stuff that makes up the body we label jibninjas did exist in 1867 , in some form or other.

Quote:
In what sense could you say that the being that we call Jibninjas always existed?
I guess it depends on what you mean by "the being", but I would say there is no being that we call jibninjas. It never existed.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 10:42 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mightyboosh
No, go for it.
I dunno if I could do justice to the reasoning that results in ~B. At this point I don't see any problem with B.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 10:49 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by neeeel
"You" dont exist at all, and never have. The stuff that makes up the body we label jibninjas did exist in 1867 , in some form or other.



I guess it depends on what you mean by "the being", but I would say there is no being that we call jibninjas. It never existed.
ok, if you have to stoop to saying that I don't exist to defend your position then I don't really have interest in continuing. thank you for taking the time.
How is God immune to the Infinite Regression? Quote
05-14-2013 , 10:55 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jibninjas
ok, if you have to stoop to saying that I don't exist to defend your position then I don't really have interest in continuing. thank you for taking the time.
In what way is saying "you dont exist" stooping to saying something( implying that I am being dishonest or evasive)? What position am I defending?


I answered your question, which was directed to people who say you didnt begin to exist. I take it you didnt like the answer?
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