So i have never done any staking or been staked and have always played off my own bankroll. However this year during the WSOP i'm going to give up some of my action. Lets say a friend takes 10% of a 5k event, and i cash for $50k. How much would they get? (general staking rules, i understand different deals can be made, i'm just looking for the standards). Thanks
You should also look for a term called ''markup''. Markup is more known when selling action, but this seems to be the case for you.
Basically the mark up is used because you are selling pieces to a field where you have an edge and to cover a little bit of traveling/ living costs.
Mark up depends on alot of factors (skill, how tough is the field, your history/references etc.)
Markup is usually from like 1.05 till 1.4, so if you sell action for 5k event at 1.4 markup and your friend wants 10%, he pays you 10% of the buyin x 1.4 = 700, any winnings are paid out as usual ( if you win 50k and he has 10% you owe him 5000)
I must add that 1.4 is VERY high markup and most seen is somewhere between 1.1 and 1.2, but this obviously depends.
I might be just wrong about everything here, but hopefully this helps you a little.
You should also look for a term called ''markup''. Markup is more known when selling action, but this seems to be the case for you.
Basically the mark up is used because you are selling pieces to a field where you have an edge and to cover a little bit of traveling/ living costs.
Mark up depends on alot of factors (skill, how tough is the field, your history/references etc.)
Markup is usually from like 1.05 till 1.4, so if you sell action for 5k event at 1.4 markup and your friend wants 10%, he pays you 10% of the buyin x 1.4 = 700, any winnings are paid out as usual ( if you win 50k and he has 10% you owe him 5000)
I must add that 1.4 is VERY high markup and most seen is somewhere between 1.1 and 1.2, but this obviously depends.
I might be just wrong about everything here, but hopefully this helps you a little.
Im unfortunately unfamiliar with taxes, but as far as i have heard investors needs to fill some kind of a form (basically he is responsible for his own taxes)
that doesn't make sense. Based on that, if he were to buy 100% of the action, that means i would give 100% of 50k?
This outcome is possible if a player sold 100% of his action at face value (no mark up or mark down). It is obviously not ideal to do this if the player has no incentive from the result. But theoretically possible? Yes.
Right, so my question is what is standard for 10% of my 5k buyin. I understand its theoretically possible but its not realistically for me, or 90% of stakes though im assuming though.
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